Sorry for not responding for so long, I've had real-life problems, and the school was also quite demanding these days.
By this guy's logic, you can't accept any science until you've studied it.
Well, a lot of people seem to believe that. For instance, about global warming, people who deny global warming often use that "You haven't really studied climate science, did you?" rhetoric (as if they themselves had).
The problem with that, I think, is that it assumes you can tell whether something is pseudoscience just by studying it for long enough. I don't think that's the case, there are people who study astrology their entire lives and not realizing it's pseudoscience.
Brimstone went over this with you in the flat earth thread several times, I suggest you go back and reread it.
I don't that Flat-Earthism is a right analogy here. Flat-Earthers generally know that the science is not on their side, they just think it's impossible to prove beyond a reasonable doubt the Earth is round, and that the Earth being flat is somehow a simpler explanation. Meat-eaters generally think most of the scientists are on their side, that vegetarianism and veganism are rejection of science. It's incredibly hard to fight that, a few sentences can't counter years of that kind of indoctrination.
You don't have to be a scientist to be an analyst. All scientists are analysts though (more or less).
A good point. Though I'd imagine he would respond with something like "You are missing the point. If you don't have a degree in any STEM area, you are likely to misread the academic papers. Besides, secondary sources are considered less reliable than primary sources.".
I suppose I might also run into the argument against using science in philosophy (including ethics) such that the science may be reliable in giving scientifically correct answers, but that it is not reliable in giving philosophically correct answers.
That was brought up a few times by Richard Feynman in "The Feynman Lectures on Physics", as in
"Finally, and most interesting, philosophically we are completely wrong with the approximate law.". Though I don't really understand the examples he used, I think there is some truth to it.
That can easily be seen in historical linguistics. Consider, for instance, the rule for the development of the /i/ sound in ancient Croatian toponyms. The correct explanation (as far as I am aware) goes like this:
Classical Latin short /i/ merges with long /e/ in Vulgar Latin. In the early borrowings from Vulgar Latin into Old Croatian, the Vulgar Latin /i/ sound gets borrowed as short /i/ in pre-stressed and stressed syllables, and as a long /i/ in the syllables after the stress. Vulgar Latin /e/ before the stress also gets borrowed as short /i/, while it gets borrowed as a yat (turning into /ie/, /e/, or /i/, depending on the dialect) in stressed and post-stress syllables. Later in Old Croatian, short /i/ turns into the front yer (which, by the Havlik's Law, either disappears or turns to /a/ in Modern Croatian). In the later borrowings from Vulgar Latin into Croatian, the /i/ and /e/ remain unchanged.
This explanation is obviously complicated, so someone who studies the Croatian toponyms may, before arriving to that rule, suppose some simpler, but less correct, explanations. Consider two such explanations:
1)
Latin /i/ usually gets preserved in Croatian, but it sometimes randomly changes to /a/ or /e/.
2)
Classical Latin long /i/ gets borrowed as front yer in Croatian (disappearing or turning into /a/, in accordance to the Havlik's Law), while Classical Latin short /i/ gets borrowed as a yat (turning into /ie/, /e/, or /i/, depending on the dialect). That is due to the long and short vowels having different qualities in Vulgar Latin.
Which one is more correct? Now, the first hypothesis will correctly predict the development of the /i/ sound in more words than the second one will, so it is scientifically more correct. However, the second hypothesis is, although it will make incorrect predictions, way more in line with how languages actually work. The first hypothesis ignores the regularity of sound changes, which is the core assumption of historical linguistics. Sounds do not change randomly, but the sound changes are often conditioned by the prosody. Therefore, the second hypothesis is, although it is scientifically less correct, philosophically way more correct.
So, what do you think, why should we trust science when it comes to ethics, when it is clear that science, at least sometimes, favors philosophically less correct hypotheses over the philosophically more correct ones?